ICWIM LATEST BRAINDUMPS EBOOK | ICWIM LATEST EXAM ONLINE

ICWIM Latest Braindumps Ebook | ICWIM Latest Exam Online

ICWIM Latest Braindumps Ebook | ICWIM Latest Exam Online

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Tags: ICWIM Latest Braindumps Ebook, ICWIM Latest Exam Online, ICWIM Reliable Test Sims, Free ICWIM Dumps, ICWIM Valid Test Simulator

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q71-Q76):

NEW QUESTION # 71
Mortgage protection can assist when:

  • A. Illness may prevent the main wage earner from meeting mortgage payments
  • B. Property prices collapse
  • C. Interest rates rise, increasing the cost of mortgage payments
  • D. Property prices rise very quickly

Answer: A

Explanation:
Mortgage protection insurance (MPI) is designed to cover mortgage payments in case of unexpected life events, such as illness or death of the primary earner.
* Why is Option C Correct?
* If the main wage earner falls ill or dies, MPI ensures the mortgage is paid so that their family does not lose their home.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Property prices rise) # Property price increases do not affect mortgage repayments.
* B (Interest rates rise) # While rising rates increase mortgage costs, MPI does not cover rate changes.
* D (Property price collapse) # MPI does not protect against declining property values.
# Reference: CISI Wealth & Investment Management (Protection Planning), FCA Mortgage Market Review (MMR).


NEW QUESTION # 72
Why would a composite benchmark be needed to measure portfolio performance?

  • A. Because the portfolio forms part of the investment universe
  • B. It makes it easier for the fund manager
  • C. To lower the tracking error
  • D. Because the portfolio spans several asset classes

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Need for a Composite Benchmark:
* Portfolios that span multiple asset classes (e.g., equities, bonds, commodities) require a composite benchmark to provide a fair performance comparison.
* Single benchmarks (e.g., S&P 500) would not accurately represent multi-asset portfolios.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Composite benchmarks complicate fund management rather than simplify it.
* C: While portfolios are part of the investment universe, this does not necessitate a composite benchmark.
* D: Reducing tracking error is a goal but not the main reason for composite benchmarks.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Details on portfolio management and benchmark selection for performance measurement.


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which type of investment is associated with providing finance to growing companies with the objective of exiting via a profitable stock market listing?

  • A. Structured products
  • B. Convertible bonds
  • C. Preference shares
  • D. Private equity

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Private Equity and Growing Companies:
* Private equity involves investing in privately-held companies with the goal of increasing their value and exiting through a stock market listing (IPO) or sale.
* This investment type targets growth-stage businesses requiring significant capital.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Convertible bonds are debt instruments, not equity investments.
* B: Preference shares provide fixed dividends and are not growth-oriented investments.
* D: Structured products are financial instruments tied to underlying assets and not specific to growth financing.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Coverage of private equity investments and their objectives.


NEW QUESTION # 74
When analysing rates of return, why is a short-dated government bond considered to be the risk-free rate?

  • A. Governments are considered unlikely to default
  • B. There is no tracking error when measuring the performance of government bonds
  • C. Investors can buy short-dated government bonds without risk
  • D. Government bonds are free from all types of risk

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Risk-Free Rate
* The rate of return on an investment with virtually no risk of financial loss.
* Short-dated government bonds are considered risk-free because governments, especially in developed economies, are deemed highly unlikely to default.
* Why the Answer is A
* Short-dated bonds minimize risks associated with duration (interest rate risk).
* Governments can typically print money or increase taxes to meet debt obligations, reducing default risk.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* B. Without risk: Investors still face inflation risk and currency risk.
* C. Free from all risks: No investment is completely risk-free; risk is minimized, not eliminated.
* D. No tracking error: Irrelevant to the definition of a risk-free rate.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Management: Defines the risk-free rate and its attributes.
* Economic Theory: Short-dated government bonds as benchmarks for risk-free rates.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isA. Governments are considered unlikely to default.


NEW QUESTION # 75
An advisor is reviewing a client's portfolio which has a time horizon of 15 years and is made up primarily of bonds and cash but with some exposure to equities and other higher-risk investments. It is reasonable to believe that the client's risk appetite is:

  • A. Mid-High Risk
  • B. Low-Mid Risk
  • C. Low Risk
  • D. Mid Risk

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Risk Appetite and Portfolio Composition
* A portfolio primarily of bonds and cash indicates a conservative approach, but the inclusion of equities and higher-risk investments suggests some tolerance for risk.
* A 15-year time horizon allows for a balanced approach, mitigating risks associated with equities over time.
* Why the Answer is B
* The mix of low-risk (bonds, cash) and some high-risk exposure (equities) aligns withLow-Mid Risk.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Low Risk: Overlooks the equity and higher-risk components.
* C. Mid Risk / D. Mid-High Risk: Overestimate the risk level due to the dominance of bonds and cash.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Profiling: Explains portfolio risk classification.
References


NEW QUESTION # 76
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